Networking MCQs

Networking Practice MCQ Questions and Answers

Comprehensive Topics from Examveda.com

Networking Miscellaneous

1. Which of the following is a peer-to-peer network model?

A. Client-server B. Domain-based C. Workgroup D. Centralized

Answer: C. Workgroup

2. What is the main purpose of a network hub?

A. To filter network traffic B. To create collision domains C. To broadcast incoming data to all connected ports D. To route packets between different networks

Answer: C. To broadcast incoming data to all connected ports

3. Which device operates at the Physical layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model?

A. Router B. Switch C. Hub D. Firewall

Answer: C. Hub

4. What is latency in a network context?

A. The maximum data transfer rate B. The time delay before a transfer of data begins following an instruction for its transfer C. The amount of data that can be transmitted in a given time D. The number of errors in data transmission

Answer: B. The time delay before a transfer of data begins following an instruction for its transfer

5. Which of the following topologies offers the highest fault tolerance?

A. Bus B. Star C. Ring D. Mesh

Answer: D. Mesh

6. What is a domain name system (DNS) primarily used for?

A. Managing network security B. Translating domain names to IP addresses C. Assigning dynamic IP addresses D. Storing user authentication data

Answer: B. Translating domain names to IP addresses

7. Which of the following describes a Local Area Network (LAN)?

A. Connects devices across different cities B. Typically spans a single building or campus C. Uses satellite communication exclusively D. Connects networks globally

Answer: B. Typically spans a single building or campus

Networking Basics

8. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for data encryption and compression?

A. Presentation Layer B. Application Layer C. Session Layer D. Transport Layer

Answer: A. Presentation Layer

9. What is the function of a NIC (Network Interface Card)?

A. To route network traffic B. To connect a computer to a network C. To translate IP addresses D. To provide wireless access

Answer: B. To connect a computer to a network

10. Which cabling type is most susceptible to electromagnetic interference (EMI)?

A. Fiber Optic B. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) C. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) D. Coaxial Cable

Answer: C. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)

11. What is a broadcast domain?

A. A network segment where all devices share the same network address B. The area in which a wireless signal can be received C. A group of devices that receive broadcast frames from each other D. A set of devices connected by a single router

Answer: C. A group of devices that receive broadcast frames from each other

12. Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol?

A. UDP B. IP C. TCP D. ICMP

Answer: C. TCP

13. The physical address of a device on a network is known as its:

A. IP Address B. Logical Address C. MAC Address D. Port Number

Answer: C. MAC Address

14. What is the standard port for FTP data transfer?

A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23

Answer: A. 20

TCP IP

15. Which of the following protocols operates at the Internet Layer of the TCP/IP model?

A. HTTP B. TCP C. IP D. DNS

Answer: C. IP

16. What is the primary function of the TCP three-way handshake?

A. To acknowledge data receipt B. To establish a connection before data transfer C. To retransmit lost segments D. To close a connection

Answer: B. To establish a connection before data transfer

17. Which protocol is used by email clients to send email?

A. POP3 B. IMAP C. SMTP D. HTTP

Answer: C. SMTP

18. What is the maximum segment size (MSS) in TCP?

A. The largest amount of data that can be sent in a single IP packet B. The largest amount of data that a TCP segment can hold C. The total size of a TCP header D. The maximum number of simultaneous connections

Answer: B. The largest amount of data that a TCP segment can hold

19. Which port number is typically used by HTTPS?

A. 80 B. 23 C. 443 D. 22

Answer: C. 443

20. What is the role of ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)?

A. To resolve IP addresses to domain names B. To map IP addresses to MAC addresses C. To assign dynamic IP addresses D. To provide error reporting for IP packets

Answer: B. To map IP addresses to MAC addresses

21. What is a socket in TCP/IP networking?

A. A physical connector on a network device B. A combination of an IP address and a port number C. A type of network cable D. A software application for network monitoring

Answer: B. A combination of an IP address and a port number

IOS and Security Device Manager

22. Which command would you use to configure a static IP address on a Cisco router interface?

A. ip config B. interface gigabitethernet 0/0; ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0; no shutdown C. set ip address D. configure terminal; ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

Answer: B. interface gigabitethernet 0/0; ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0; no shutdown

23. What is the default privilege level when you log into a Cisco router?

A. User EXEC mode (privilege level 1) B. Privileged EXEC mode (privilege level 15) C. Global Configuration mode D. Interface Configuration mode

Answer: A. User EXEC mode (privilege level 1)

24. Which command is used to display the currently active configuration file on a Cisco device?

A. show startup-config B. show version C. show ip interface brief D. show running-config

Answer: D. show running-config

25. Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM) is a ______ based application.

A. Command-line B. Text-based C. Graphical User Interface (GUI) D. Console-based

Answer: C. Graphical User Interface (GUI)

26. Which IOS command allows you to view the IP addresses and status of all interfaces?

A. show interfaces B. show ip route C. show ip interface brief D. show protocols

Answer: C. show ip interface brief

27. What does the "service password-encryption" command do in Cisco IOS?

A. Encrypts the enable secret password B. Encrypts all plaintext passwords in the configuration C. Encrypts user login usernames D. Encrypts network traffic

Answer: B. Encrypts all plaintext passwords in the configuration

28. Which mode allows you to make changes that affect the entire Cisco device?

A. User EXEC mode B. Privileged EXEC mode C. Global Configuration mode D. Line Configuration mode

Answer: C. Global Configuration mode

IP Routing

29. What is a "default route" in routing?

A. A route for specific hosts only B. A route used when no other specific route matches the destination C. A route automatically learned from a directly connected network D. A route that always points to the local subnet

Answer: B. A route used when no other specific route matches the destination

30. Which routing protocol is a link-state routing protocol?

A. RIP B. EIGRP C. BGP D. OSPF

Answer: D. OSPF

31. What is the administrative distance of an external BGP route?

A. 20 B. 90 C. 110 D. 200

Answer: A. 20

32. Which type of routing uses a single path between source and destination?

A. Dynamic Routing B. Static Routing C. Default Routing D. Multicast Routing

Answer: B. Static Routing

33. What is the purpose of route summarization (aggregation)?

A. To increase the size of routing tables B. To reduce the number of entries in routing tables C. To prevent routing loops D. To speed up packet forwarding on individual routers

Answer: B. To reduce the number of entries in routing tables

34. Which metric does RIP (Routing Information Protocol) use?

A. Bandwidth B. Delay C. Hop count D. Cost

Answer: C. Hop count

35. What is "equal-cost multi-path" (ECMP) routing?

A. Routing that prioritizes certain traffic types B. Routing where packets are forwarded over multiple paths of equal cost C. Routing that uses different protocols for different paths D. Routing that always selects the shortest path

Answer: B. Routing where packets are forwarded over multiple paths of equal cost

Spanning Tree Protocol

36. What problem does STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) solve in a switched network?

A. IP address conflicts B. Routing loops C. Layer 2 loops (broadcast storms, MAC table instability, multiple frame copies) D. DNS resolution issues

Answer: C. Layer 2 loops (broadcast storms, MAC table instability, multiple frame copies)

37. Which STP port role sends and receives BPDUs and forwards traffic?

A. Root Port B. Designated Port C. Alternate Port D. Disabled Port

Answer: B. Designated Port

38. What is a Bridge ID (BID) composed of in STP?

A. MAC address only B. Priority value only C. Bridge Priority and MAC address D. IP address and MAC address

Answer: C. Bridge Priority and MAC address

39. Which STP port state transitions directly to the forwarding state without a delay?

A. Blocking B. Listening C. Learning D. (None, all have delays in traditional STP)

Answer: D. (None, all have delays in traditional STP) - Note: Rapid STP (RSTP) allows faster transitions.

40. What is the default Bridge Priority value for Cisco switches in STP?

A. 0 B. 128 C. 32768 D. 65535

Answer: C. 32768

41. Which STP enhancement provides faster convergence times?

A. PVST+ B. MSTP C. RSTP D. PortFast

Answer: C. RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol)

42. What happens if a non-root bridge has all its ports in a blocking state?

A. It becomes the new root bridge B. It is disconnected from the network segment it serves C. It experiences a broadcast storm D. It sends out more BPDUs

Answer: B. It is disconnected from the network segment it serves

Security

43. Which type of attack aims to overload a system's resources, making it unavailable to legitimate users?

A. Phishing B. Man-in-the-Middle C. Denial of Service (DoS) D. SQL Injection

Answer: C. Denial of Service (DoS)

44. What is the primary function of an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?

A. To detect and alert on suspicious activity B. To prevent detected intrusions by blocking or dropping malicious traffic C. To provide secure remote access D. To encrypt data in transit

Answer: B. To prevent detected intrusions by blocking or dropping malicious traffic

45. Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?

A. RSA B. AES C. Diffie-Hellman D. ECC

Answer: B. AES

46. What does multifactor authentication (MFA) require?

A. A strong password B. Only a username and password C. Two or more distinct forms of authentication D. Biometric verification only

Answer: C. Two or more distinct forms of authentication

47. Which of the following is a common method for attackers to gain unauthorized access by tricking users into revealing credentials?

A. Port Scanning B. Buffer Overflow C. Phishing D. Brute Force Attack

Answer: C. Phishing

48. What is the primary benefit of using a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?

A. To increase internet speed B. To create a secure, encrypted connection over a public network C. To block all incoming network traffic D. To provide dynamic IP addresses

Answer: B. To create a secure, encrypted connection over a public network

49. What is a "zero-day" vulnerability?

A. A vulnerability that has been known for zero days B. A vulnerability that has been patched C. A vulnerability that has been publicly disclosed but not yet patched D. A vulnerability that only affects newly released software

Answer: C. A vulnerability that has been publicly disclosed but not yet patched

Wireless Technologies

50. Which IEEE 802.11 standard introduced MIMO (Multiple-Input, Multiple-Output) technology?

A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n

Answer: D. 802.11n

51. Which wireless security protocol is considered the most secure for Wi-Fi networks today?

A. WEP B. WPA C. WPA2 D. WPA3

Answer: D. WPA3 (WPA2 is also widely used and secure, but WPA3 is the latest and most secure)

52. What is the typical frequency band used by Bluetooth?

A. 5 GHz B. 2.4 GHz C. 900 MHz D. 60 GHz

Answer: B. 2.4 GHz

53. What is an access point (AP) in a wireless network?

A. A device that routes traffic between networks B. A device that connects wireless devices to a wired network C. A software program for network management D. A security mechanism to filter wireless traffic

Answer: B. A device that connects wireless devices to a wired network

54. What is the purpose of a Wi-Fi channel?

A. To define the wireless network name B. To specify the encryption type C. To provide a distinct frequency for wireless communication to avoid interference D. To set the password for the wireless network

Answer: C. To provide a distinct frequency for wireless communication to avoid interference

55. Which of the following is an advantage of using 5 GHz Wi-Fi over 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi?

A. Longer range B. Better penetration through walls C. Less susceptible to interference from other devices D. Wider adoption by older devices

Answer: C. Less susceptible to interference from other devices

56. What is "Ad-hoc" mode in wireless networking?

A. A mode where devices connect directly to each other without an access point B. A mode for connecting to the internet C. A mode for setting up public Wi-Fi hotspots D. A mode that requires a central server for authentication

Answer: A. A mode where devices connect directly to each other without an access point

Wide Area Networks

57. Which technology provides high-speed data transmission over standard phone lines?

A. Ethernet B. DSL C. Fiber Optic D. Satellite Internet

Answer: B. DSL

58. What is a "demarcation point" in a WAN connection?

A. The point where the ISP's responsibility ends and the customer's begins B. The location of the main router in a network C. The point where a wireless network transitions to a wired network D. A point where two different routing protocols meet

Answer: A. The point where the ISP's responsibility ends and the customer's begins

59. Which WAN technology creates virtual circuits over a shared infrastructure?

A. Leased Line B. Ethernet WAN C. Frame Relay D. Dial-up

Answer: C. Frame Relay

60. What is the purpose of a Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) in a WAN?

A. To provide Wi-Fi connectivity B. To convert digital signals from a router into a format suitable for the WAN link and vice-versa C. To route packets between different LANs D. To filter incoming network traffic

Answer: B. To convert digital signals from a router into a format suitable for the WAN link and vice-versa

61. Which of these is a characteristic of a "leased line" WAN connection?

A. It's a shared, public internet connection B. It provides dedicated, point-to-point bandwidth C. It's primarily used for mobile devices D. It uses wireless technology exclusively

Answer: B. It provides dedicated, point-to-point bandwidth

62. What does VPN primarily use to create secure tunnels over the internet?

A. HTTP and FTP B. Encryption and tunneling protocols C. DNS and DHCP D. MAC address filtering

Answer: B. Encryption and tunneling protocols

63. Which WAN technology is often used by large enterprises to connect multiple branch offices and is known for its scalability and traffic engineering capabilities?

A. Dial-up B. ISDN C. MPLS D. ADSL

Answer: C. MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching)

Internetworking

64. Which device is essential for connecting different broadcast domains?

A. Hub B. Switch C. Router D. Repeater

Answer: C. Router

65. What is the primary role of a gateway in internetworking?

A. To filter malicious traffic B. To translate protocols between different networks C. To extend the range of a wireless signal D. To assign IP addresses to devices

Answer: B. To translate protocols between different networks

66. Which layer of the OSI model do routers primarily operate at?

A. Data Link Layer B. Network Layer C. Transport Layer D. Physical Layer

Answer: B. Network Layer

67. What is a "point-to-point" connection in networking?

A. A connection between multiple devices sharing a single medium B. A dedicated communication link between two endpoints C. A connection that uses a central hub D. A connection over a wireless network

Answer: B. A dedicated communication link between two endpoints

68. Which of the following best describes the internet?

A. A single, large local area network B. A global system of interconnected computer networks C. A private network used by businesses only D. A network limited to wireless devices

Answer: B. A global system of interconnected computer networks

69. What is the difference between a switch and a hub in terms of forwarding decisions?

A. Hubs use MAC addresses, switches use IP addresses B. Switches learn MAC addresses and forward frames only to the destination port, hubs broadcast to all ports C. Hubs operate at Layer 3, switches at Layer 2 D. Switches create more collision domains than hubs

Answer: B. Switches learn MAC addresses and forward frames only to the destination port, hubs broadcast to all ports

70. What is a "backbone" network?

A. The least important part of a network B. A central conduit connecting smaller segments of a network C. A network used only for backup purposes D. A wireless mesh network

Answer: B. A central conduit connecting smaller segments of a network

Subnetting

71. What is the purpose of subnetting an IP network?

A. To increase the number of available IP addresses B. To reduce the size of broadcast domains and improve network efficiency C. To provide secure remote access D. To convert private IP addresses to public ones

Answer: B. To reduce the size of broadcast domains and improve network efficiency

72. If a network has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240, how many usable host addresses are in each subnet?

A. 6 B. 14 C. 30 D. 62

Answer: B. 14 ($2^4 - 2 = 14$)

73. What is the CIDR notation for a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192?

A. /25 B. /26 C. /27 D. /28

Answer: B. /26

74. Given the IP address 172.16.10.50 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, what is the broadcast address for this subnet?

A. 172.16.10.31 B. 172.16.10.63 C. 172.16.10.50 D. 172.16.10.255

Answer: B. 172.16.10.63 (Subnets are ...0, ...32, ...64. So .32 to .63. Broadcast is .63)

75. What is a "variable length subnet mask" (VLSM)?

A. A subnet mask that changes dynamically B. Using different subnet mask lengths for different subnets within the same major network C. A subnet mask used only for wireless networks D. A subnet mask that allows for an unlimited number of hosts

Answer: B. Using different subnet mask lengths for different subnets within the same major network

76. How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

A. 8 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64

Answer: C. 32

77. Which IP address class is designed for small networks?

A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D

Answer: C. Class C

Managing a Cisco Internetwork

78. What is the purpose of the `reload` command in Cisco IOS?

A. To save the configuration to NVRAM B. To restart the Cisco device C. To load a new IOS image D. To clear the routing table

Answer: B. To restart the Cisco device

79. Which command allows you to test connectivity to another device using ICMP?

A. traceroute B. show cdp neighbors C. ping D. telnet

Answer: C. ping

80. What is the role of `NVRAM` (Non-Volatile RAM) in a Cisco device?

A. Stores the running configuration B. Stores the IOS image C. Stores the startup configuration D. Used for temporary data storage during operation

Answer: C. Stores the startup configuration

81. Which protocol is used by Cisco devices to discover directly connected neighbors?

A. LLDP B. OSPF C. CDP D. BGP

Answer: C. CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol)

82. To access a Cisco device remotely via a secure, encrypted connection, you would typically use:

A. Telnet B. HTTP C. SSH D. FTP

Answer: C. SSH

83. What does the `copy running-config startup-config` command achieve?

A. It loads the saved configuration into RAM B. It applies the current active configuration to the device's interfaces C. It saves the active configuration to non-volatile memory D. It deletes the startup configuration

Answer: C. It saves the active configuration to non-volatile memory

84. What is the purpose of a console cable when managing a Cisco device?

A. For remote management over the network B. For initial configuration or troubleshooting when network access is unavailable C. To connect to the internet D. To provide power to the device

Answer: B. For initial configuration or troubleshooting when network access is unavailable

EIGRP and OSPF

85. Which of the following is a Cisco proprietary routing protocol?

A. OSPF B. EIGRP C. RIP D. BGP

Answer: B. EIGRP

86. OSPF uses which type of packets to discover and maintain neighbor relationships?

A. Update packets B. Request packets C. Hello packets D. Acknowledgement packets

Answer: C. Hello packets

87. What is an "Area" in OSPF?

A. A logical grouping of routers to limit the scope of link-state updates B. A physical boundary in the network C. A single broadcast domain D. A collection of routers all running different routing protocols

Answer: A. A logical grouping of routers to limit the scope of link-state updates

88. EIGRP uses what as its primary metric for path selection?

A. Hop Count B. Cost C. Bandwidth and Delay (composite metric) D. Reliability and Load

Answer: C. Bandwidth and Delay (composite metric)

89. What is the role of the Designated Router (DR) in an OSPF multi-access network?

A. To act as the root bridge for STP B. To represent the segment to the rest of the OSPF network, reducing LSA flooding C. To assign IP addresses to hosts D. To provide NAT services

Answer: B. To represent the segment to the rest of the OSPF network, reducing LSA flooding

90. EIGRP's DUAL algorithm ensures what property in its path calculations?

A. Loop prevention B. Fastest convergence regardless of topology C. Manual route configuration D. Automatic summarization only

Answer: A. Loop prevention

91. Which OSPF network type requires a Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated Router (BDR)?

A. Point-to-point B. Broadcast multi-access C. Point-to-multipoint D. Non-broadcast multi-access (NBMA) without mapping

Answer: B. Broadcast multi-access

Virtual LANs

92. What is the main characteristic of a VLAN?

A. It groups devices based on their physical location B. It logically segments a network into smaller broadcast domains C. It increases the physical size of a network D. It is used to connect different wide area networks

Answer: B. It logically segments a network into smaller broadcast domains

93. Which type of port on a switch is used to carry traffic for multiple VLANs?

A. Access port B. Trunk port C. SPAN port D. EtherChannel port

Answer: B. Trunk port

94. What is "Inter-VLAN routing"?

A. Routing between two physically separate networks B. The process of routing traffic between different VLANs C. Routing within a single VLAN D. Routing traffic over the internet

Answer: B. The process of routing traffic between different VLANs

95. What does the "native VLAN" do on a trunk port?

A. It carries all tagged traffic B. It carries untagged traffic C. It's used for management traffic only D. It provides a backup for other VLANs

Answer: B. It carries untagged traffic

96. Which Cisco feature simplifies the creation and management of VLANs across multiple switches by dynamically distributing VLAN information?

A. VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) B. DTP (Dynamic Trunking Protocol) C. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) D. CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol)

Answer: A. VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol)

97. What is the default VLAN on most Cisco switches?

A. VLAN 1 B. VLAN 10 C. VLAN 100 D. VLAN 1002

Answer: A. VLAN 1

98. How do VLANs enhance network security?

A. By encrypting all traffic within the VLAN B. By physically isolating network devices C. By segmenting the network, limiting broadcast domains and preventing direct communication between unauthorized devices D. By assigning private IP addresses only

Answer: C. By segmenting the network, limiting broadcast domains and preventing direct communication between unauthorized devices

Network Address Translation

99. Which type of NAT is commonly used in homes and small offices to allow multiple private IP addresses to share a single public IP address?

A. Static NAT B. Dynamic NAT C. PAT (Port Address Translation) D. One-to-one NAT

Answer: C. PAT (Port Address Translation)

100. What is the term for the IP address used internally within a private network, before NAT translation?

A. Global Address B. Outside Local Address C. Inside Local Address D. Outside Global Address

Answer: C. Inside Local Address

101. Which RFC defines the private IP address ranges used for NAT?

A. RFC 791 B. RFC 1918 C. RFC 2606 D. RFC 3927

Answer: B. RFC 1918

102. What is the primary reason for using NAT?

A. To enhance network security by encrypting traffic B. To conserve public IPv4 addresses C. To improve network performance D. To implement Quality of Service (QoS)

Answer: B. To conserve public IPv4 addresses

103. In dynamic NAT, how are private IP addresses mapped to public IP addresses?

A. One-to-one, manually configured B. Using a pool of public IP addresses on a first-come, first-served basis C. Using port numbers only D. Based on MAC addresses

Answer: B. Using a pool of public IP addresses on a first-come, first-served basis

104. Which term describes the process of allowing outside devices to initiate connections to specific internal servers using NAT?

A. Overloading B. Port Forwarding (or Static NAT with port mapping) C. DHCP relay D. DNS resolution

Answer: B. Port Forwarding (or Static NAT with port mapping)

105. What happens to the source IP address of a packet when it leaves a NAT-enabled router and goes to the internet?

A. It remains the same B. It is replaced with a public IP address C. It is removed D. It is encrypted

Answer: B. It is replaced with a public IP address

IPv6

106. How many hexadecimal digits are in an IPv6 address segment (hextet)?

A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16

Answer: B. 4

107. Which IPv6 address type is used for communication between devices on the same link and is not routable beyond that link?

A. Global Unicast B. Unique Local C. Link-Local D. Multicast

Answer: C. Link-Local

108. What is the process of automatically configuring IPv6 addresses without a DHCPv6 server called?

A. Stateful DHCPv6 B. Manual Configuration C. SLAAC (Stateless Address Autoconfiguration) D. NAT64

Answer: C. SLAAC (Stateless Address Autoconfiguration)

109. Which IPv6 address type is equivalent to a public IPv4 address and is globally routable?

A. Unique Local B. Global Unicast C. Loopback D. Anycast

Answer: B. Global Unicast

110. How is the IPv6 loopback address represented?

A. 127.0.0.1 B. ::1 C. FF00::/8 D. FE80::/10

Answer: B. ::1

111. What is the IPv6 equivalent of ARP?

A. ICMPv6 B. NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol) C. DHCPv6 D. DNS

Answer: B. NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)

112. IPv6 uses what to identify multiple interfaces that belong to the same routing group, allowing packets to be delivered to any one of the interfaces?

A. Unicast Address B. Multicast Address C. Anycast Address D. Link-Local Address

Answer: C. Anycast Address