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Friday, 18 July 2025

Networking MCQs

By  July 18, 2025   No comments
Networking Practice MCQs - Examveda Style

Networking Practice MCQ Questions and Answers

Comprehensive Topics from Examveda.com

Networking Miscellaneous
1. Which of the following is a peer-to-peer network model?
Answer: C. Workgroup
2. What is the main purpose of a network hub?
Answer: C. To broadcast incoming data to all connected ports
3. Which device operates at the Physical layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model?
Answer: C. Hub
4. What is latency in a network context?
Answer: B. The time delay before a transfer of data begins following an instruction for its transfer
5. Which of the following topologies offers the highest fault tolerance?
Answer: D. Mesh
6. What is a domain name system (DNS) primarily used for?
Answer: B. Translating domain names to IP addresses
7. Which of the following describes a Local Area Network (LAN)?
Answer: B. Typically spans a single building or campus
Networking Basics
8. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for data encryption and compression?
Answer: A. Presentation Layer
9. What is the function of a NIC (Network Interface Card)?
Answer: B. To connect a computer to a network
10. Which cabling type is most susceptible to electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
Answer: C. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
11. What is a broadcast domain?
Answer: C. A group of devices that receive broadcast frames from each other
12. Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol?
Answer: C. TCP
13. The physical address of a device on a network is known as its:
Answer: C. MAC Address
14. What is the standard port for FTP data transfer?
Answer: A. 20
TCP IP
15. Which of the following protocols operates at the Internet Layer of the TCP/IP model?
Answer: C. IP
16. What is the primary function of the TCP three-way handshake?
Answer: B. To establish a connection before data transfer
17. Which protocol is used by email clients to send email?
Answer: C. SMTP
18. What is the maximum segment size (MSS) in TCP?
Answer: B. The largest amount of data that a TCP segment can hold
19. Which port number is typically used by HTTPS?
Answer: C. 443
20. What is the role of ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)?
Answer: B. To map IP addresses to MAC addresses
21. What is a socket in TCP/IP networking?
Answer: B. A combination of an IP address and a port number
IOS and Security Device Manager
22. Which command would you use to configure a static IP address on a Cisco router interface?
Answer: B. interface gigabitethernet 0/0; ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0; no shutdown
23. What is the default privilege level when you log into a Cisco router?
Answer: A. User EXEC mode (privilege level 1)
24. Which command is used to display the currently active configuration file on a Cisco device?
Answer: D. show running-config
25. Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM) is a ______ based application.
Answer: C. Graphical User Interface (GUI)
26. Which IOS command allows you to view the IP addresses and status of all interfaces?
Answer: C. show ip interface brief
27. What does the "service password-encryption" command do in Cisco IOS?
Answer: B. Encrypts all plaintext passwords in the configuration
28. Which mode allows you to make changes that affect the entire Cisco device?
Answer: C. Global Configuration mode
IP Routing
29. What is a "default route" in routing?
Answer: B. A route used when no other specific route matches the destination
30. Which routing protocol is a link-state routing protocol?
Answer: D. OSPF
31. What is the administrative distance of an external BGP route?
Answer: A. 20
32. Which type of routing uses a single path between source and destination?
Answer: B. Static Routing
33. What is the purpose of route summarization (aggregation)?
Answer: B. To reduce the number of entries in routing tables
34. Which metric does RIP (Routing Information Protocol) use?
Answer: C. Hop count
35. What is "equal-cost multi-path" (ECMP) routing?
Answer: B. Routing where packets are forwarded over multiple paths of equal cost
Spanning Tree Protocol
36. What problem does STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) solve in a switched network?
Answer: C. Layer 2 loops (broadcast storms, MAC table instability, multiple frame copies)
37. Which STP port role sends and receives BPDUs and forwards traffic?
Answer: B. Designated Port
38. What is a Bridge ID (BID) composed of in STP?
Answer: C. Bridge Priority and MAC address
39. Which STP port state transitions directly to the forwarding state without a delay?
Answer: D. (None, all have delays in traditional STP) - Note: Rapid STP (RSTP) allows faster transitions.
40. What is the default Bridge Priority value for Cisco switches in STP?
Answer: C. 32768
41. Which STP enhancement provides faster convergence times?
Answer: C. RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol)
42. What happens if a non-root bridge has all its ports in a blocking state?
Answer: B. It is disconnected from the network segment it serves
Security
43. Which type of attack aims to overload a system's resources, making it unavailable to legitimate users?
Answer: C. Denial of Service (DoS)
44. What is the primary function of an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?
Answer: B. To prevent detected intrusions by blocking or dropping malicious traffic
45. Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?
Answer: B. AES
46. What does multifactor authentication (MFA) require?
Answer: C. Two or more distinct forms of authentication
47. Which of the following is a common method for attackers to gain unauthorized access by tricking users into revealing credentials?
Answer: C. Phishing
48. What is the primary benefit of using a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?
Answer: B. To create a secure, encrypted connection over a public network
49. What is a "zero-day" vulnerability?
Answer: C. A vulnerability that has been publicly disclosed but not yet patched
Wireless Technologies
50. Which IEEE 802.11 standard introduced MIMO (Multiple-Input, Multiple-Output) technology?
Answer: D. 802.11n
51. Which wireless security protocol is considered the most secure for Wi-Fi networks today?
Answer: D. WPA3 (WPA2 is also widely used and secure, but WPA3 is the latest and most secure)
52. What is the typical frequency band used by Bluetooth?
Answer: B. 2.4 GHz
53. What is an access point (AP) in a wireless network?
Answer: B. A device that connects wireless devices to a wired network
54. What is the purpose of a Wi-Fi channel?
Answer: C. To provide a distinct frequency for wireless communication to avoid interference
55. Which of the following is an advantage of using 5 GHz Wi-Fi over 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi?
Answer: C. Less susceptible to interference from other devices
56. What is "Ad-hoc" mode in wireless networking?
Answer: A. A mode where devices connect directly to each other without an access point
Wide Area Networks
57. Which technology provides high-speed data transmission over standard phone lines?
Answer: B. DSL
58. What is a "demarcation point" in a WAN connection?
Answer: A. The point where the ISP's responsibility ends and the customer's begins
59. Which WAN technology creates virtual circuits over a shared infrastructure?
Answer: C. Frame Relay
60. What is the purpose of a Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) in a WAN?
Answer: B. To convert digital signals from a router into a format suitable for the WAN link and vice-versa
61. Which of these is a characteristic of a "leased line" WAN connection?
Answer: B. It provides dedicated, point-to-point bandwidth
62. What does VPN primarily use to create secure tunnels over the internet?
Answer: B. Encryption and tunneling protocols
63. Which WAN technology is often used by large enterprises to connect multiple branch offices and is known for its scalability and traffic engineering capabilities?
Answer: C. MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching)
Internetworking
64. Which device is essential for connecting different broadcast domains?
Answer: C. Router
65. What is the primary role of a gateway in internetworking?
Answer: B. To translate protocols between different networks
66. Which layer of the OSI model do routers primarily operate at?
Answer: B. Network Layer
67. What is a "point-to-point" connection in networking?
Answer: B. A dedicated communication link between two endpoints
68. Which of the following best describes the internet?
Answer: B. A global system of interconnected computer networks
69. What is the difference between a switch and a hub in terms of forwarding decisions?
Answer: B. Switches learn MAC addresses and forward frames only to the destination port, hubs broadcast to all ports
70. What is a "backbone" network?
Answer: B. A central conduit connecting smaller segments of a network
Subnetting
71. What is the purpose of subnetting an IP network?
Answer: B. To reduce the size of broadcast domains and improve network efficiency
72. If a network has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240, how many usable host addresses are in each subnet?
Answer: B. 14 ($2^4 - 2 = 14$)
73. What is the CIDR notation for a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192?
Answer: B. /26
74. Given the IP address 172.16.10.50 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, what is the broadcast address for this subnet?
Answer: B. 172.16.10.63 (Subnets are ...0, ...32, ...64. So .32 to .63. Broadcast is .63)
75. What is a "variable length subnet mask" (VLSM)?
Answer: B. Using different subnet mask lengths for different subnets within the same major network
76. How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
Answer: C. 32
77. Which IP address class is designed for small networks?
Answer: C. Class C
Managing a Cisco Internetwork
78. What is the purpose of the `reload` command in Cisco IOS?
Answer: B. To restart the Cisco device
79. Which command allows you to test connectivity to another device using ICMP?
Answer: C. ping
80. What is the role of `NVRAM` (Non-Volatile RAM) in a Cisco device?
Answer: C. Stores the startup configuration
81. Which protocol is used by Cisco devices to discover directly connected neighbors?
Answer: C. CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol)
82. To access a Cisco device remotely via a secure, encrypted connection, you would typically use:
Answer: C. SSH
83. What does the `copy running-config startup-config` command achieve?
Answer: C. It saves the active configuration to non-volatile memory
84. What is the purpose of a console cable when managing a Cisco device?
Answer: B. For initial configuration or troubleshooting when network access is unavailable
EIGRP and OSPF
85. Which of the following is a Cisco proprietary routing protocol?
Answer: B. EIGRP
86. OSPF uses which type of packets to discover and maintain neighbor relationships?
Answer: C. Hello packets
87. What is an "Area" in OSPF?
Answer: A. A logical grouping of routers to limit the scope of link-state updates
88. EIGRP uses what as its primary metric for path selection?
Answer: C. Bandwidth and Delay (composite metric)
89. What is the role of the Designated Router (DR) in an OSPF multi-access network?
Answer: B. To represent the segment to the rest of the OSPF network, reducing LSA flooding
90. EIGRP's DUAL algorithm ensures what property in its path calculations?
Answer: A. Loop prevention
91. Which OSPF network type requires a Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated Router (BDR)?
Answer: B. Broadcast multi-access
Virtual LANs
92. What is the main characteristic of a VLAN?
Answer: B. It logically segments a network into smaller broadcast domains
93. Which type of port on a switch is used to carry traffic for multiple VLANs?
Answer: B. Trunk port
94. What is "Inter-VLAN routing"?
Answer: B. The process of routing traffic between different VLANs
95. What does the "native VLAN" do on a trunk port?
Answer: B. It carries untagged traffic
96. Which Cisco feature simplifies the creation and management of VLANs across multiple switches by dynamically distributing VLAN information?
Answer: A. VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol)
97. What is the default VLAN on most Cisco switches?
Answer: A. VLAN 1
98. How do VLANs enhance network security?
Answer: C. By segmenting the network, limiting broadcast domains and preventing direct communication between unauthorized devices
Network Address Translation
99. Which type of NAT is commonly used in homes and small offices to allow multiple private IP addresses to share a single public IP address?
Answer: C. PAT (Port Address Translation)
100. What is the term for the IP address used internally within a private network, before NAT translation?
Answer: C. Inside Local Address
101. Which RFC defines the private IP address ranges used for NAT?
Answer: B. RFC 1918
102. What is the primary reason for using NAT?
Answer: B. To conserve public IPv4 addresses
103. In dynamic NAT, how are private IP addresses mapped to public IP addresses?
Answer: B. Using a pool of public IP addresses on a first-come, first-served basis
104. Which term describes the process of allowing outside devices to initiate connections to specific internal servers using NAT?
Answer: B. Port Forwarding (or Static NAT with port mapping)
105. What happens to the source IP address of a packet when it leaves a NAT-enabled router and goes to the internet?
Answer: B. It is replaced with a public IP address
IPv6
106. How many hexadecimal digits are in an IPv6 address segment (hextet)?
Answer: B. 4
107. Which IPv6 address type is used for communication between devices on the same link and is not routable beyond that link?
Answer: C. Link-Local
108. What is the process of automatically configuring IPv6 addresses without a DHCPv6 server called?
Answer: C. SLAAC (Stateless Address Autoconfiguration)
109. Which IPv6 address type is equivalent to a public IPv4 address and is globally routable?
Answer: B. Global Unicast
110. How is the IPv6 loopback address represented?
Answer: B. ::1
111. What is the IPv6 equivalent of ARP?
Answer: B. NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)
112. IPv6 uses what to identify multiple interfaces that belong to the same routing group, allowing packets to be delivered to any one of the interfaces?
Answer: C. Anycast Address
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Introduction to Cloud Services

By  July 18, 2025   No comments

Cloud services refer to the on-demand delivery of IT resources and applications over the internet with pay-as-you-go pricing. Instead of owning and maintaining your own computing infrastructure, you can access services like computing power, storage, databases, networking, software, and analytics from a cloud provider. This model offers significant benefits to individuals and businesses alike.

Key Characteristics of Cloud Computing

The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) identifies five essential characteristics of cloud computing:

  • On-Demand Self-Service: Users can provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. This is typically done through a web portal

  • Broad Network Access: Cloud capabilities are available over the network and accessed through standard mechanisms that promote use by heterogeneous thin or thick client platforms (e.g., mobile phones, tablets, laptops, workstations).

  • Resource Pooling: The provider's computing resources are pooled to serve multiple consumers using a multi-tenant model, with different physical and virtual resources dynamically assigned and reassigned according to consumer demand. This allows for efficiency through economies of scale.

  • Rapid Elasticity: Capabilities can be elastically provisioned and released, in some cases automatically, to scale rapidly outward and inward commensurate with demand. To the consumer, the capabilities available for provisioning often appear unlimited and can be appropriated in any quantity at any time.

  • Measured Service: Cloud systems automatically control and optimize resource use by leveraging a metering capability at some level of abstraction appropriate to the type of service (e.g., storage, processing, bandwidth, and active user accounts). Resource usage can be monitored, controlled, and reported, providing transparency for both the provider and consumer.

Cloud Service Models

Cloud services are primarily categorized into three main "as a Service" models, each offering different levels of management by the provider and control by the user:

1. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

IaaS provides you with virtualized computing resources over the internet. It's the most basic category of cloud computing services.

  • What it offers: Virtual machines (VMs), storage (object, block, file), networks (virtual private clouds, load balancers), and operating systems.

  • Your control: You manage the operating systems, applications, and data.

  • Provider's responsibility: The cloud provider manages the underlying infrastructure, including the physical servers, networking hardware, virtualization (hypervisors), and data centers.

  • Analogy: Think of it like renting an empty apartment. You're responsible for furnishing it (installing OS, applications) and what you put inside, but the landlord (provider) takes care of the building's structure, electricity, and plumbing.

  • Examples: Amazon Web Services (AWS) EC2, Microsoft Azure Virtual Machines, Google Compute Engine.

2. Platform as a Service (PaaS)

PaaS offers a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based applications to sophisticated enterprise applications.

  • What it offers: All IaaS components, plus middleware, operating systems, databases, development tools, and programming language runtimes.

  • Your control: You manage the applications and data you deploy.

  • Provider's responsibility: The provider manages the underlying infrastructure and the platform itself.

  • Analogy: This is like renting a fully furnished apartment. You can move in and start working immediately without worrying about the furniture (middleware, OS, tools), but you're still responsible for your personal belongings (applications, data). Examples: AWS Elastic Beanstalk, Google App Engine, Azure App Service, Heroku.

3. Software as a Service (SaaS)

SaaS provides you with complete, ready-to-use software applications over the internet, typically on a subscription basis.

  • What it offers: A fully functional application, accessible via a web browser or a mobile app.

  • Your control: You primarily use the software; you don't manage any of the underlying infrastructure or platform.

  • Provider's responsibility: The provider manages everything: the applications, data, runtime, middleware, operating systems, virtualization, servers, storage, and networking.

  • Analogy: This is like renting a hotel room. You just use the services provided (bed, TV, bathroom) without worrying about any maintenance or infrastructure.

  • Examples: Gmail, Salesforce, Microsoft 365, Dropbox.

Other "As a Service" Models (XaaS)

Beyond the core three, the "as a Service" paradigm has expanded to include many specialized offerings, often referred to as "Everything as a Service" (XaaS). Examples include:

  • Function as a Service (FaaS) / Serverless Computing: Allows developers to build and run application functionalities without managing the underlying servers. The cloud provider automatically provisions, scales, and manages the infrastructure required to run the code.

  • Desktop as a Service (DaaS): Delivers virtual desktops to users over the internet.

  • Database as a Service (DBaaS): Provides managed database services.

Cloud Deployment Models

Cloud services can be deployed in different ways based on who owns and manages the infrastructure, and who has access to it.

1. Public Cloud



  • Description: Services are delivered over the internet by third-party providers (e.g., AWS, Azure, Google Cloud). Resources are shared among multiple tenants (organizations or users).

  • Ownership & Management: Owned and operated by the cloud service provider.

  • Advantages: Highly scalable, cost-effective (pay-as-you-go), low maintenance for the user.

  • Disadvantages: Less control over infrastructure, potential security and compliance concerns (though providers invest heavily in security).

  • Use Cases: Web applications, development and testing environments, non-sensitive data storage.

2. Private Cloud



  • Description: Cloud computing resources are used exclusively by a single organization. It can be physically located on the company's on-premises data center or hosted by a third-party service provider.

  • Ownership & Management: Dedicated to a single organization. Can be managed by the organization or a third party.

  • Advantages: Greater control over infrastructure, enhanced security and data privacy, easier compliance with specific regulations.

  • Disadvantages: Higher initial investment, requires more IT expertise for management (if on premises), less scalable than public clouds.

  • Use Cases: Highly sensitive data, mission-critical applications, organizations with strict regulatory compliance needs.

3.Hybrid Cloud



  • Description: Combines public and private clouds, allowing data and applications to be shared between them. It leverages the strengths of both models.

  • Ownership & Management: A mix of internal and external management, depending on which part of the hybrid cloud is being used.

  • Advantages: Flexibility to move workloads between private and public clouds, cost optimization (use public cloud for non-sensitive, scalable workloads and private for sensitive data), improved business continuity.

  • Disadvantages: Increased complexity in management and integration, security considerations for data moving between environments.

  • Use Cases: Bursting (using public cloud for peak loads), disaster recovery, development/testing in public cloud with production in private cloud.

4. Community Cloud

  • Description: Cloud infrastructure is shared by several organizations that have common concerns (e.g., security requirements, policy, compliance considerations).

  • Ownership & Management: Can be managed by one or more of the participating organizations or a third party.

  • Advantages: Cost-effective for shared needs, enhanced security and compliance tailored to specific community requirements, shared responsibilities among members.

  • Disadvantages: Limited scalability compared to public clouds, governance challenges among participating organizations.

  • Use Cases: Government agencies, research institutions, healthcare providers sharing common regulatory frameworks.

Benefits of Cloud Computing

Cloud computing offers numerous advantages for businesses and individuals:

  • Cost Efficiency:

    • Reduced Capital Expenditure (CapEx): No need for upfront investment in hardware, software, and data centers.

    • Operational Expenditure (OpEx): Pay-as-you-go model means you only pay for the resources you consume, avoiding over-provisioning.

    • Lower Maintenance Costs: Cloud providers handle infrastructure maintenance, updates, and repairs.

  • Scalability & Elasticity: Easily scale resources up or down to meet fluctuating demand, ensuring optimal performance without overspending.

  • Global Reach & Accessibility: Access applications and data from anywhere in the world with an internet connection, promoting remote work and global collaboration.

  • Reliability & High Availability: Cloud providers offer robust infrastructure with built-in redundancy, backups, and disaster recovery mechanisms, minimizing downtime.

  • Increased Agility & Innovation: Rapidly deploy new services and applications, enabling faster time-to-market and fostering innovation.

  • Security: Reputable cloud providers invest heavily in advanced security measures, often exceeding what individual organizations can afford or implement on their own. They adhere to various compliance standards.

  • Focus on Core Business: Offloading IT infrastructure management allows businesses to focus on their core competencies and strategic initiatives.

Challenges of Cloud Computing

Despite its benefits, cloud computing also presents certain challenges:

  • Security Concerns:

    • Data Privacy: Concerns about where data resides and who has access to it.

    • Data Breaches: Though providers have strong security, shared responsibility models mean users also have a role in securing their data and applications within the cloud.

    • Compliance: Ensuring compliance with industry-specific regulations and data sovereignty laws.

  • Vendor Lock-in: Difficult or expensive to switch cloud providers once deeply integrated with a specific vendor's services.

  • Limited Control: Less control over the underlying infrastructure, which can be a concern for organizations with specific customization needs.

  • Internet Connectivity Dependency: Reliance on a stable internet connection for accessing cloud services. Downtime or slow connectivity can impact productivity.

  • Cost Management: While seemingly cost-effective, managing cloud costs can become complex, especially with dynamic scaling and varied pricing models. Unexpected expenses can arise if resource consumption isn't monitored effectively.
  • Performance Issues: Potential for latency or performance degradation depending on network conditions and resource allocation.
  • Integration Complexity: Integrating cloud services with existing on-premises systems can be challenging.

Understanding these aspects is crucial for making informed decisions when adopting and leveraging cloud services.

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